UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) conducted the CDS (Combined Defence Services) I Exam – 2021. CDS I 2021 Paper held on 07 February, 2021. This paper is General Knowledge Section. UPSC CDS (I) 2021 General Knowledge Paper Answer Key available here.
Exam – UPSC CDS (I) 2021
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – General Knowledge
Date of Exam – 07 February, 2021
Number of Question – 120
PART -2
21.Which one of the following approaches of human development was initially proposed by the International Labor Organisation (ILO) and emphasized on health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing?
A. Welfare approach
B. Basic needs approach
C. Income approach
D. Capability approach
Show Answer Ans. B. The ‘basic needs’ approach introduced by the International Labour Organization’s World Employment Conference in 1976. According to ILO report, it indicates two crucial elements in the Basic Needs approach: “First, they include certain minimum requirements of a family for private consumption: adequate food, shelter and clothing, as well as certain household equipment and furniture. Second, they include essential services provided by and for the community at large, such as safe drinking water, sanitation, public transport and health, education and cultural facilities.” Hence the correct answer is option B.
22.Milpa and Ladang are different names for
A. shifting cultivation.
B. mixed farming.
C. truck farming.
D. plantation agriculture
Show Answer Ans. A Shifting Cultivation is known as Milpa in Central America & Mexico, Ray in Vietnam, Taungya In Myanmar, Tamrai in Thailand, Chena in Sri Lanka, Conuco in Venezuela, Roca in Brazil, Masole in central Africa and Ladang in Indonesia, Caingin in the Philippines. In India, Shifting Cultivation is known by various local names like ‘Jhum’ cultivation.
23.Who among the following said that Democracy means a system of ‘Government by Consent’?
A. John Locke
B. J.S. Mill
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. J.J. Rousseau
Show Answer Ans. A. The English philosopher John Locke created the philosophical school empiricism. John Locke wrote, “Democracy is a government based on law, that is created after long consideration by appropriate elected representatives of the people and proclaimed in a way, that all men can become acquainted with them.” hence the correct answer is option A.
24.’Legal Positivism’ theory was developed by
A. T.H. Green
B. Thomas Hobbes
C. John Austin
D. Patrick Devlin
Show Answer Ans. C. Legal positivism is a school of thought of analytical jurisprudence developed largely by legal philosophers during the 18th and 19th centuries, such as Jeremy Bentham and John Austin. While Bentham and John Austin developed legal positivist theory, empiricism provided the theoretical basis for such developments to occur. so here the correct answer is option C.
25.Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 16
D. Article 22
Show Answer Ans. A. It guarantees the right of every person who is arrested to be informed of the cause of his arrest; secondly, his right to consult and to be defended by a lawyer of his choice. Thirdly, every person arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within twentyfour hours and shall be kept in continued custody only with his authority.
Article 14: equality before the law, the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The equality before the law is guaranteed to all without regard to race, colour, or nationality.
Article 15: Non-discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in public employment, no citizen shall on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth,residence, or any of them, be ineligible for or discriminated against in
respect of any employment or office under the state.
Article 22: Safeguards against Arbitrary Arrest and Detention
26. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘casting vote’ in the Parliament is/are correct?
1. It is cast by the speaker or a person acting as such
2. It is cast in addition to voting in the first instance.
3. It is cast in the case of equality of votes.
4. It is always cast to maintain the status quo.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 only
Show Answer Ans. B. A casting vote is a vote that someone may exercise to resolve a deadlock or in the case of equality of votes. A casting vote is typically by the presiding officer of a council, legislative body, committee, etc., In some legislatures, a casting vote may be exercised however the presiding officer wishes, according to her party affiliation or according to her personal beliefs. So the option B is correct.
27. National Disaster Management Authority is headed by
A. the Prime Minister.
B. the Home Minister.
C. the President.
D. the Health Minister.
Show Answer Ans. A. The Government of India (GOI) set up a High-Powered Committee (HPC) in August 1999 and a National Committee after the Gujarat earthquake, for making recommendations on the preparation of Disaster Management plans and suggesting effective mitigation mechanisms. The Tenth FiveYear Plan document also had, for the first time, a detailed chapter on Disaster Management. The Twelfth Finance Commission was also mandated to review the financial arrangements for Disaster Management. On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act, which envisaged the creation of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister, and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by respective Chief Ministers, to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to Disaster Management in India.
28. When was the monopoly of China trade lost by East India Company?
A. 1813
B. 1833
C. 1838
D. 1860
Show Answer Ans. B. The Regulating Act (1773) and William Pitt the Younger India Act (1784) established government control of political policy through a regulatory board for Parliament. The company then gradually lost commercial and political control. Its commercial monopoly was broken in 1813. In 1833, the jealously-protected monopoly of the East India Company was finally abolished and the China trade was opened to the competition of dozens of British companies, who had been petitioning the government, and from 1834 it was the only managing agency for the British Government of India. It was deprived of that role after the Indian Rebellion (1857), and it did not exist as a legal entity in 1873.
29. Which one of the following statements about the British Indian Medical Service (IMS) is not correct?
A. IMS began in 1764
B. It recruited health professionals by means of a competitive examination.
C. Indians were never admitted to IMS.
D. The IMS was at first meant to look after the troops.
Show Answer Ans. C. British Indian Medical Service (IMS) organization began with the establishment of the Bengal Medical Service on 20 October 1763 after that by 1764 in both Madras and Bombay also. In Bengal, increasing military actions required the separation of Military Surgeons from Civil Surgeons. The first Indian to join the service was Soorjo Coomar Goodeve Chuckerbutty who entered the service on 24 January 1855 followed by Rajendra Chandra Chandra on 27 January 1858. The Medical Services of the Madras, Bengal and Bombay Presidencies were united after 1857. Hence the correct answer is option C.
30. Which one of the following statements with regard to ryotwari settlement is not correct?
A. In southern and western India, the ryotwari settlement was adopted.
B. Ryotwari was in principle a direct contract between the ryot and the state.
C. It means a tax contract valid for usually 30 years.
D. In principle, it strengthened the former elite, the zamindars and weakened the peasantry.
Show Answer Ans. D. Three major systems of land revenue collection existed in India. They were – Zamindari, Ryotwari and Mahalwari. Where Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820. Mainly introduced in Madras,Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorg provinces of British India. according to this, the ownership rights were handed over to the peasants. British Government collected taxes directly from the peasants. The revenue rates of Ryotwari System were 50% where the lands were dry and 60% in irrigated land.
31. A motion of no-confidence is moved against
A. an individual Minister.
B. the Council of Ministers.
C. the Prime Minister.
D. a political party.
Show Answer Ans. B. A no-confidence motion can be passed against the entire council of ministers only. As a parliamentary motion, it exhibits to the head of state that the elected parliament no longer has confidence in (i.e. one or more members of) the appointed government. In some nations, if a no-confidence motion is proceeded against an individual minister they have to resign along with the entire council of ministers. A no-confidence motion, or a vote of no confidence, or no-confidence motion, is a vote or statement about whether a person in a position of responsibility (i.e. at government, managerial, etc.) is no longer deemed fit to hold that position, perhaps as they are inadequate in some aspect, are failing to accomplish obligations, or are making decisions that other members feel as being detrimental.
32. Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is not correct?
A. He is not eligible for re-election.
B. He must not be less than 35 years of age.
C. He is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
D. His term of office is five years.
Show Answer Ans. A. The Vice President’s election is slightly different from that of the election of the President as the members of state legislatures are not involved in the electoral college but the nominated members of both the houses are part of the electoral college for the vice-presidential election. As in the President’s case, in order to be qualified to be elected as Vice President, a person must:
33. Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to noncitizens?
1. Freedom of speech
2. Protection against self-incrimination
3. Freedom of conscience
4. Non-discrimination in employment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Show Answer Ans. C. Fundamental Rights (FRs)are the social and political claims without which, a man cannot give his best to the society or can not realize his/her best self. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to all persons whether he/she is citizens or foreigners. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are provided only to citizens of India.
34. Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct?
A. Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.
B. Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections.
C. Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members.
D. Lok Sabha has seats reserved for SCs and STs.
Show Answer Ans. A. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members those represents states are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States comparatively with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, STV, and those representing Union Territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe. Parliament has empowered by the Indian Constitution to prescribe the manner of selecting the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha. It has passed the Union Territories (i.e. Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, which provides that Lok Sabha members from the Union Territories will be selected by direct elections. The Indian Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall comprise of 250 members, out of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having specific knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters like literature, science, art and social service; and not greater than 238 representatives of the States and the Union Territories. Some seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the members of the Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes. According to the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in the year 2008, 412 are general, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and another 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes.
35. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union Cabinet?
A. It is part of the Parliament.
B. It is responsible to the Parliament.
C. It remains in power till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament.
D. A person from outside the Parliament can never be appointed a member of the Cabinet.
Show Answer Ans. D. Statement D is not correct as a person from outside the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Cabinet. 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Show Answer Ans. D. 37. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below: Show Answer Ans. B. 38. Which one of the following units is not a part of All India Radio’s Transcription and Programme Exchange Service? Show Answer Ans. C. The Transcription Service had started on 3rd April 1954 and entrusted with the major function of preparing transcription of speeches of all dignitaries with main focus on the Prime Ministers & Presidents of the country. This office has the following functional units – 39. Which of the following is/are social security scheme(s)? Select the correct answer using the code given below: Show Answer Ans. C. All three, i.e., Atal Pension Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha BimaYojana are social security scheme (s). 40. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the listsCode: A. a-3 b-2 c-4 d-1 Show Answer Ans. B.
1. The election to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India.
3. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election.
2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls.
3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state.
4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
A. Central Archives
B. Sound Archives
C. Advanced Research Unit
D. Transcription Unit
1. Atal Pension Yojana
2. Pradhan MantriJeevanJyotiBimaYojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha BimaYojana
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
LIST 1
LIST 2
A. Cyclones
1. Western Australia
B. Hurricanes
2. South china sea
C. Typhoons
3. Indian Ocean
D. Willy-Willies
4. Atlantic Ocean
B. a-3 b-4 c-2 d-1
C. a-1 b-4 c-2 d-3
D. a-1 b-2 c-4 d-3
Different names of cyclones in Different countries
high voltages grounding conductor.